Last night I happened to be reading in my old NASB, and noticed in Matthew 24 verse 4 reads like this: “And Jesus answered and said to them, “See to it that no one misleads you.” (emphasis mine)

I began to wonder about this phrase, which I remember is so common throughout the gospels in the “older” translations. I had assumed this was just an “olde English” practice, held over from the old KJV.

I went to the “Introduction to the NASB” at the beginning of my Bible, and was pleasantly surprised to see that they addressed this phrase directly. It said this was a Hebrew idiom.

I said, “Wait a second. If that’s a Hebrew idiom, what’s it doing in one of the gospels? They were written in Greek!”

Of course, there is that speculation that maybe Matthew was written in Hebrew originally, then translated into Greek.

But even so, why a Hebrew idiom in the gospels? Anybody out there have any idea about this?

And another question to consider: Granted this is the NASB, which is trying to preserve the original wording as much as possible, but what do you suppose is the value of retaining such a phrase as “answered and said” in this day and age? The NASB actually changes this to a more normal “answered” or “said” in most cases, but they chose to retain it in Matthew 24:4.

(Just a couple questions rumbling through my mind.)